“Should the prime directive apply to first world countries right here right now?” Unfortunately, IMHO, that particular horse left the barn about 500 years ago. Is the notion of applying the Prime Directive at all valid if the current circumstances of any number of nations are what they are today directly because of “interference” and exploitation by other nations, many of them currently “first-world” nations, that began centuries ago and continued for centuries? Well, we’ve been fucking them all over for centuries (excuse my French) and now, well, we really shouldn’t interfere with their development, after all, what business is it of ours?